I have read some of his plays and I've never understood why he stands out from everyone else, only thing I could find that makes him semi-unique is he makes up his own words, but is that really a good thing? So what I'm asking is why is he considered great?
(Btw please dont post "I don't know" because that just fills up this thread with useless posts)
I have read some of his plays and I've never understood why he stands out from everyone else, only thing I could find that makes him semi-unique is he makes up his own words, but is that really a good thing? So what I'm asking is why is he considered great?
In the time he was writing he was VERY popular and really changed how theater and plays were done. Very influential of his time period and his plays are great reads to this day.
That is, if he even wrote his plays. Several modern playwrights, historians and enthusiasts have studied theories that he did not write his own plays. One popular new movie, Anonymous, tells us that the Earl of Oxford, ******* to Queen Elizabeth I, wrote the plays, sent them to a known good playwright, but Shakey went on and took the credit.
A more entertained idea is Shakey's good friend, Christopher Marlow, who was an equally good playwright. He was conveniently murdered in a tavern, but some say that a friend of Signor Speare smuggled Christopher out of the kingdom, where he wrote plays and sent them to William, who happily signed his name on the plays.
And a big piece of evidence of these tales is that there are no plays found in William's own writing, his father was a gunsmith and was illiterate, and William's children were irrefutably illiterate. His writing was described as a poor scrawl, as is his signature found on existing plays.
Should the plays actually have been called Oxfordian plays? Or Marlowean?
What the... The word for child of unmarried parents is considered a swear?¿ Oh well, in Paragraph One the blocked out word is child of unmarried parents.
Should the plays actually have been called Oxfordian plays? Or Marlowean?
Personally I think Shakespearean writing pertains more to the style than to the author... whether or not the plays were actually written by a man named William Shakespeare, the style has become synonymous with the name regardless of who wrote the pieces.
That is, if he even wrote his plays. Several modern playwrights, historians and enthusiasts have studied theories that he did not write his own plays. One popular new movie, Anonymous, tells us that the Earl of Oxford, ******* to Queen Elizabeth I, wrote the plays, sent them to a known good playwright, but Shakey went on and took the credit.
I have heard all of this too but i don't really believe it. I could have easily happened, sure but I haven't seen enough evidence to prove it.
I think he is also considered good for making the plays (considering he wrote them) very timeless. If you would change a few things almost every play could be done in a "today's time play".
