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I am a staunch opponent of abortion, it being the murder of an unborn baby; so I challenge whoever supports it, to debate with me how it can possibly be right.
-A woman has the right to do whatever she wants with her own body, even when in her mother's womb.
-Abortion is discrimation in the worst form, because it murders a child who came "at an inconvenient time."
-Women regret abortions.
Any born human is, by definition, not a fetus.
consent is therefore not an option.
The decision has to be made by someone else, and the mother is the obvious choice.
Your argument does not demonstrate that tumors and fetuses should be treated according to different ethical standards; it only assumes that they should without any explanation. That's why it's special pleading.
Dictionary.com:
irrelevant adjective
1 not relevant; not applicable or pertinent
2 Law. (of evidence) having no probative value upon any issue in the case.
Nor does it need one, because a fetus is not possessing of any such right.
Astonishingly, this has no effect on the incorrectness of your statement.
In many cases, yes,
A tumor has its own unique DNA,
But any born human was a fetus.Any fetus was a pair of gametes, and any gamete was half of a diploid cell. No one seems to care much when a few thousand gametes or diploid cells are killed, so why draw the line between two set of unthinking, unfeeling, uncaring cells?
A fetus constitutes a part of a person, whose rights may not be infringed by another.Then, by the same grounds, a tumor constitutes a part of a person, whose rights may not be infringed by another.
If a fetus weren't part of another person, then yes, it may be treated as a tumor. However, I hold the opposite: a fetus is part of a different person.So, if someone (for whatever reason) implanted their tumor into another person, your statement would imply that it is unethical to treat or otherwise destroy that tumor, as it constitutes part of a different person.
You claimed that a fetus is not capable of reasoning, but by Merriam Webster's dictionary, capability is a feature or faculty capable of development, which clearly means that a fetus is capable of reason [...]No, it obviously doesn't. It means that the word "capability" can refer to a thing that can develop from an undeveloped state. It says nothing about fetuses, because it has nothing to do with fetuses. What you're trying to argue is the biological equivalent of "sand is capable of attaining all human knowledge".
According to your definition of a person.No, according to the law. The declaration of independence does not assign rights or personhood to fetuses, nor does any US legislation outside of Alabama, nor does Canada, nor for that matter does the UDHR.
I express the act of causing the death of a person as "taking the life of another," though in no way do I by this statement claim that life is merely a body.Again, this has no effect on the incorrectness of your earlier statement.
That killing is unjustified.Probably, but also irrelevant because, a person's house is not the same as a person's body.
Yet it doesn't constitute, in whole or in part, a person.Then, by the same grounds, a fetus doesn't either. The trick here is to come up with something that actually makes any difference between the two matter.
But any born human was a fetus.
Yes, the decision has to be made by someone else, but the question remains: is it morally permissible to have an abortion?
A fetus constitutes a part of a person,
Ntech:
A fetus has its own unique DNA, something unique to a separate life-form. If it were a part of its mother, its DNA would be hers.
FishPreferred:
So? A tumor has its own unique DNA, something unique to a dysfunctional cellular reproductive mechanism. If it were a part of its host, its DNA would be his/hers.
Ntech:
Yet it doesn't constitute, in whole or in part, a person.
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