ForumsWEPRProving the Commutative Property

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Einfach
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Einfach
1,448 posts
Nomad

Put quite clearly, this thread is NOT saying that the commutative property (in mathematics) is not real. I'm simply challenging anyone to prove it.

Let me phrase the question - Why should we accept the commutative property beyond the shadow of a doubt? Why should we think that it should be true of all numbers?

Just because it works a few times does not mean it is necessarily true for all numbers, so examples prove nothing.

My challenge - prove that a+b = b+a for any number a and b.

I am interested in hearing your responses.

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Kevin4762
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Kevin4762
2,420 posts
Nomad

4 + (-4) = -4 + 4

It is proven.

Einfach
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Einfach
1,448 posts
Nomad

4 + (-4) = -4 + 4

It is proven.


No it's not. This doesn't say anything about (458 + 3i) x (839 + 934i) or any two hypothetical sets of two complex numbers.
Moe
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Moe
1,714 posts
Blacksmith

No it's not. This doesn't say anything about (458 + 3i) x (839 + 934i) or any two hypothetical sets of two complex numbers.


I just did that on my calculator, its 381460+430289i both ways.
Einfach
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Einfach
1,448 posts
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I just did that on my calculator, its 381460+430289i both ways.


The point I'm trying to get across is that actual examples don't prove anything. Why should we, based off of a few examples, make something an unshakeable rule for all of mathematics?
driejen
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driejen
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I took some interest in this and decided to search around for an answer. All proofs of the commutativity of addition that I see uses mathematical induction, which apparently shouldn't be confused with inductive reasoning and is a form of deductive reasoning(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_induction).

As far as it goes;

From the definition of addition, as the proof extensively uses the definition;
s(a) = a + 1[A1]
a + s(b) = s(a + b)[A2]

It is first necessary to prove that; a + s(b) = s(b) + a for all cases of a and b.

Proving that a + s(1) = s(a) + 1 using the definition of addition;
a + s(1) = s(a + 1) using A2
s(a + 1) = s(s(a)) using A1
s(s(a)) = s(a) + 1 using A1

Proving that a + s(b) = s(a) + b;
a + s(s(b)) = s(a + s(b)) using A2
s(a + s(b)) = s(s(a) + b) by induction
s(s(a) + b) = s(a) + s(b) using A2
s(a) + s(b) = s(a) + b + 1 using A1
s(a) + b + 1 = s(s(a)) + b using A1
therefore, a + s(b) = s(a) + b[A3]

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Proving that a + 1 = 1 + a;
s(a) + 1 = a + s(1) using A3
a + s(1) = s(a + 1) using A2
s(a + 1) = s(1 + a) by induction
s(1 + a) = 1 + s(a) using A2
therefore, a + 1 = 1 + a

Proving that a + b = b + a;
a + s(b) = s(a + b) using A2
s(a + b) = s(b + a) by induction
s(b + a) = b + s(a) using A2
b + s(a) = s(b) + a using A3
therefore a + b = b + a
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Links:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proofs_involving_the_addition_of_natural_numbers
http://www.dpmms.cam.ac.uk/~wtg10/addcomm.html
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I donât claim to be knowledgeable about the subject but I honestly have read and took the time to understand the proof I have given, so I didnât just copy and paste it. It took my interest so I thought I would look up on it, and honestly I am wondering a little if I chose the correct career path If you have problems with using induction then I cannot argue with you but perhaps you can try to take it up with a real mathematician and ask them why mathematical induction is considered a form of deductive proof, although Iâm not sure you will find such a person here on AG.

Kevin4762
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Kevin4762
2,420 posts
Nomad

No it's not. This doesn't say anything about (458 + 3i) x (839 + 934i) or any two hypothetical sets of two complex numbers.


1. The only thing that is the same in both sets is the variable.

2. It is proven since it would not be the commutative property without it being equivalent.

3. I may not understand entirely.
Einfach
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Einfach
1,448 posts
Nomad

It is proven since it would not be the commutative property without it being equivalent.


Can anyone here prove it, though? Or is it an assumption - an axiom?
driejen
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driejen
486 posts
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Can anyone here prove it, though? Or is it an assumption - an axiom?

I've posted what I've learned in page 2, and as far as I know the commutative property of addition can be proven by using the axiom of induction as a basis.
opto
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opto
75 posts
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it does not matter what the variable as longas they are the same they will always be the same

Einfach
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Einfach
1,448 posts
Nomad

I took some interest in this and decided to search around for an answer. All proofs of the commutativity of addition that I see uses mathematical induction, which apparently shouldn't be confused with inductive reasoning and is a form of deductive reasoning


No - mathematical induction definitely should not be confused with inductive reasoning.

I think that the proof is very cool and elegant.

+1 to driejen

Along the way, I was expecting someone to post something like:
a+b=b+a
a+b-b=b+a-b
a=a

But you see, by taking away b, you're assuming an axiom, because we are assuming that it doesn't matter which "b" you're taking away from a+b.

Now, what about the commutative property of multiplication?
ab=a+a+a... "b times"
ba=b+b+b... "a times"

So - when doing the proof, you have to think along the lines of the a+a+a... "b times"...

Why am I saying this?
To make sure no one tries dividing
ab=ba
ab / a = ba / a
b=b

because you get 1+1+1+1+1... "b times" and b/a + b/a + b/a ... "a times" - and this is even assuming the distribution property.

Perhaps you can use a similar method - induction - to show that 1+1+1+1... "b times" is the same as b "1 time" - then extend it for 2, 3, and so on, and all real numbers, and etc.
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