What I mean by that is: 1. Is there anything that no entity may do to a person no matter what possible gain one can get from it? 2. And if not, then is there any boundary past which rights can be infringed upon? 3. Or do rights exist at all - but then was the Holocaust or mass murder in the past (or a hypothetical one) justified (or rather not-not justified)? 4. And if the second question, then what causes this - what creates such a boundary?
Some questions to think about: Is it justifiable to murder an innocent person to save the world? The Trolley Problem:
A trolley is running out of control down a track. In its path are five people who have been tied to the track by a mad philosopher. Fortunately, you could flip a switch, which will lead the trolley down a different track to safety. Unfortunately, there is a single person tied to that track. Should you flip the switch or do nothing?
look rights do not exist if so then you could not break them and you would always have them and there will always be a time when you carnt do what you have a right to do.
How do you break a right? We do always have some rights.
look rights do not exist if so then you could not break them and you would always have them and there will always be a time when you carnt do what you have a right to do.
So, just because something isn't provided at one moment in time means that it is nonexistent? Somebody tries to kill me. Does that mean I no longer have the right to live? Or because murder happens, does that mean no one deserves to live?
People expect to continue living. When I wake up, I'm not concerned with who will try to kill me today, nor am I concerned that my neighbors will try to steal my things. I know that this virtue is not available everywhere, but again just because it doesn't occur everywhere doesn't mean it doesn't exist.
