Theoretically, it does; since everything follows physical laws without randomness, you would 'simply' need all the data on every little particule in the universe to calculate anything.
To predict is to make an inference, usually by applying some generalization. At least, that's how I interpreted its use here.
You are basing your argument on "Just because we don't have evidence doesn't mean it doesn't exist" and "the universe exists forever and I'm not going to prove it."
What argument? You're rushing into this commando-style to defeat a position that hasn't been presented yet.
Me: Hey, I'm a determinist; this is how I perceive the world, and I'm wondering how other people --
You: Your argument is illogical, so why should I believe it!?
(emphasis added for...um emphasis)
Nature does not mandate fairness or equal repercussion. Minus the rhetorical fluff, the third law states only that the total force of interaction between two or more objects has equal magnitude in all directions.
(me, as quoted by Ishtaron)
Which is entirely correct. Newton's third law has nothing to do with fairness or karma. That's why I said it was irrelevant.
The question of the thread is, why isn't determinism more prevalent.
That is not the question.
The existence of unexplainable aberrant behavior is sufficient evidence that not everything can be determined by knowing the cause because sometimes there are things that have no cause.
"I cannot identify the reason for this. Therefore, there is no reason." That's an argument from ignorance. Our inability to effectively explain something, much like our inability to accurately predict certain things, has no bearing upon whether there is a reason or explanation.
At which point we'd officially be discussing bad science fiction.
Not really.So you have no idea what part of the conversation I'm talking about, but you can say with absolute certainty you never said anything like that.
I'm certain that I didn't say anything like that, because I have never had motive, grounds, or cause to say anything like that, and I have never entered a discussion under the influence of alcohol or narcotics. Add this to the fact that I've looked through that discussion and found nothing that even
begins to suggest anything
resembling what you claim, I can confidently say that I have no idea where you got this idea.
And as I recall, someone else beat me to the punch of pointing out why you were completely and utterly wrong on that matter.
Well, it just so happens that I found that discussion, so...
What I said:
Actually, infinity is probably one of the easiest things to understand. Omitting the boundaries from an otherwise finite system results in an infinite system. This is universally applicable, as the boundaries can represent any set quantity. Congradulations; you now understand infinity in a real and practical sense.
The first response (by Doombreed), which suggests that he considers the representation of such a concept to be distinct from the concept itself:
That doesn't sound like understanding it as a concept. Merely understanding how it can be represented.
In no way does this invalidate what I said.
The second response (by you), which conflates understanding with visualization:
Great, now imagine a space with no boundaries. Imagine a line of numbers that never ends. Not a line of numbers that seems to stretch off into infinity but an actual infinite line of numbers. You can't, can you?
In no way does this invalidate what I said.
But, to put things in perspective, I challenge you to demonstrate how absolute finiteness can be understood by the human mind. If your reasoning is sound, you should be able to explain this in a way that does not involve any boundless dimensions or infinitesimals.
There would still have to be a cause for the big bang.
No. Using this model, the Big Bang would be infinitely long, but temporally compressed, in which case it is an infinite regression up to ~14 billion years ago. For the record, I don't like this model because I'm skeptical of fluid space-time, but if we assume that the Big Bang really is the "beginning" of the universe, this is what we get. The "and then suddenly decided it wanted 14 trillion lightyears worth of leg room for all the little bits of matter running around inside of it" part is required by indeterminism, so you are essentially arguing that this part is true.
Improving it how? Any neuroscientist can point to various parts of the brain and say exactly what they do and how they interact. It's not like there's some big mysterious dark spot of the brain that no one knows anything about.
Which directly contradicts your claim that conscious thought cannot be explained.
Our brain has the same components as the brains of other animals but they lack consciousness. What exactly can the field of neuroscience do to explain such a bizarre and baseless phenomena?
Um, no. They don't. I don't care if you mean to say cognition, sapience self-awareness, or sentience; my answer is still no. Our brains have the same components because they function in the same way.
The whole purpose of a UM is that it exists without a cause and can thus act as an initial cause. It also explains things that seemingly have no cause by existing as an added but unquantified factor.
That doesn't really explain anything, though, because it suggests that the mover's actions are not based upon its environment, and are therefore as good as random.
So once again I have to ask, what's the point of this thread? You're not looking to prove a point or make a solid stance here. You're not trying to convince anyone of anything.
I want to know what other people think of determinism/causality/randomness/etc. and why they think whatever they think, because I'm not sure I understand their views. That is the point of the thread.
Infinite existence is not something that can be proven or supported by any evidence. If you need a reason for determinism to not make sense, you have it right there.
You're assuming that a cause can be found without any evidence supporting that assumption. There is no evidence that such a cause exists nor is there any way to search for such evidence, therefore the lack of a cause is sufficient evidence to contradict determinism.
Absence of evidence ≠ Evidence of absence. The reality of this hasn't changed overnight, so that isn't sufficient at all.