You call it land grabbing, but that's not really illegal, is it? I mean, at least not until very recent history. Colonies are land grabbing, and america was a colony. Throughout time lands have been invaded, taken back, and invaded again (haha...Poland...).
Fourth Geneva Accords. Need I say more? Read up on Mandates in the LoN, which basically state that the Palestine was almost a sovereign state and needed a period of administration by a foreign power before setting it free.
A land grab basically amounts to stealing; and that is what Israel did in its creation. Scroll back a few pages, even the Zionist leaders admitted so.
So allowing the U.N. to vote on it was a simply more peaceful way to "take over" if you will.
''By this time [November 1947] the United States had emerged as the most aggressive proponent of partition...The United States got the General Assembly to delay a vote 'to gain time to bring certain Latin American republics into line with its own views.''...some delegates charged U.S. officials with âdiplomatic intimidation.' Without 'terrific pressure' from the United States on âgovernments which cannot afford to risk American reprisals,â said an anonymous editorial writer, the resolution âwould never have passed.''
'John Quigley, ''Palestine and Israel: A Challenge to Justice.''
Yeah totally, the UN voted according to what they actually wanted, no pressure!
The other option, I guess, would have been to settle down, bring in more advanced weapons, better thinkers, more strategy and take over the land by force. And you can rest assure that no country (in Europe, Asia, or otherwise) would have stopped to help the Palestinians in the relatively unsettled Middle East.
Fourth Geneva Accords. I shall keep on saying it till someone actually gets it into their heads that a law is still a law.
And yes, people were unhappy. But let me remind you who started the war. Israel and its people may have been unhappy, but they did not instigate as a reason to get more land. Once the palestinians did, however, they saw an opportunity. And like any country would, not just the jews, they took that opportunity.
More quotes it seems to drum in that Israel started it.
''Before the end of the mandate and, therefore before any possible intervention by Arab states, the Jews, taking advantage of their superior military preparation and organization, had occupied...most of the Arab cities in Palestine before May 15, 1948. Tiberias was occupied on April 19, 1948, Haifa on April 22, Jaffa on April 28, the Arab quarters in the New City of Jerusalem on April 30, Beisan on May 8, Safad on May 10 and Acre on May 14, 1948...In contrast, the Palestine Arabs did not seize any of the territories reserved for the Jewish state under the partition resolution.''
British author, Henry Cattan, ''Palestine, The Arabs and Israel.''
Up for more?
''In internal discussion in 1938 [David Ben-Gurion] stated that 'after we become a strong force, as a result of the creation of a state, we shall abolish partition and expand into the whole of Palestine'...In 1948, Menachem Begin declared that: 'The partition of the Homeland is illegal. It will never be recognized. The signature of institutions and individuals of the partition agreement is invalid. It will not bind the Jewish people. Jerusalem was and will forever be our capital. Eretz Israel (the land of Israel) will be restored to the people of Israel, All of it. And forever.''
Noam Chomsky, 'The Fateful Triangle.'
Once the palestinians did, however, they saw an opportunity. And like any country would, not just the jews, they took that opportunity.
The Palestinians were trying to
regain what was rightfully theirs. They didn't seek expansion, but a return of what is theirs. Don't even attempt to flip it around and make it seem that the Palestinians harboured expansionary dreams of conquests.
Now I can't really account for what David Ben Gurion said, but I just want to draw attention to the word "olitically." There, he is talking, yes, but also explaining that in the world of politics, that is the argument that the palestinians will use.
I don't actually see how your inadequate manipulation of the word ''
olitical'' somehow justifies what he said. It seems to me that you're somehow trying to scrap a reason together that can't stand its own to repeated analysis.
So how would saying that the Palestinians would use the same argument negate the fact that Israel is illegal even as the Zionists acknowledged? I don't even see a point of your argument here.
And while I can't say it is wrong, I can only return to my argument above about colonies. The difference is that most colonies were talking lands from uncivilized natives, and this instead has turned into a full blown, almost guerilla war between two people.
It's apparent you didn't read my previous posts.
Palestine was a Mandate, not a colony.